Wednesday, May 20, 2015

300-115 SWITCH Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

300-115 SWITCH Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

Exam Number 300-115 SWITCH
Associated Certifications CCNP Routing and Switching CCDP
Duration 120 minutes (45-65 questions)
Available Languages English
Register Pearson VUE
Exam Policies Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial Review type of exam questions

Additional Resources
Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching and CCDP certifications. The SWITCH 300-115 exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.

Exam Description
Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH 300-115) is a 120-minute qualifying exam with 45‒55 questions for the Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching and CCDP certifications. The SWITCH 300-115 exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates. They are certified in planning, configuring, and verifying the implementation of complex enterprise switching solutions that use the Cisco Enterprise Campus Architecture.

The SWITCH exam also covers highly secure integration of VLANs and WLANs.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific version of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity, the following guidelines may change at any time without notice.

Need CCENT, CCNA or CCNP Study Tools to prepare for your exams? A Cisco Learning Network Premium Subscription is the ultimate resource for CCENT, CCNA Routing and Switching, and CCNP self-study.

1.0 Layer 2 Technologies 65%
1.1 Configure and verify switch administration
1.1.a SDM templates
1.1.b Managing MAC address table
1.1.c Troubleshoot Err-disable recovery

1.2 Configure and verify Layer 2 protocols
1.2.a CDP, LLDP
1.2.b UDLD

1.3 Configure and verify VLANs
1.3.a Access ports
1.3.b VLAN database
1.3.c Normal, extended VLAN, voice VLAN

1.4 Configure and verify trunking
1.4.a VTPv1, VTPv2, VTPv3, VTP pruning
1.4.b dot1Q
1.4.c Native VLAN
1.4.d Manual pruning

1.5 Configure and verify EtherChannels
1.5.a LACP, PAgP, manual
1.5.b Layer 2, Layer 3
1.5.c Load balancing
1.5.d EtherChannel misconfiguration guard

1.6 Configure and verify spanning tree
1.6.a PVST+, RPVST+, MST
1.6.b Switch priority, port priority, path cost, STP timers
1.6.c PortFast, BPDUguard, BPDUfilter
1.6.d Loopguard and Rootguard

1.7 Configure and verify other LAN switching technologies
1.7.a SPAN, RSPAN

1.8 Describe chassis virtualization and aggregation technologies
1.8.a Stackwise

2.0 Infrastructure Security 20%

2.1 Configure and verify switch security features

2.1.a DHCP snooping
2.1.b IP Source Guard
2.1.c Dynamic ARP inspection
2.1.d Port security
2.1.e Private VLAN
2.1.f Storm control

2.2 Describe device security using Cisco IOS AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS

2.2.a AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS
2.2.b Local privilege authorization fallback

3.0 Infrastructure Services 15%

3.1 Configure and verify first-hop redundancy protocols

3.1.a HSRP
3.1.b VRRP
3.1.c GLBP



QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration
must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?

A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?

A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.



Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an
EtherChannel?

A. switch1
channel-group 1 mode active
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
B. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode passive
C. switch1
channel-group 1 mode on
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto
D. switch1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switch2
channel-group 1 mode auto

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.



How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is
received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?

A. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
B. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
C. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
D. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Saturday, April 25, 2015

Who’s behind Linux now, and should you be afraid?

Most Linux kernel code isn’t developed by who you might think. Here’s a closer look at why this matters.

If you think that Linux is still the "rebel code”—the antiestablishment, software-just-wants-to-be-free operating system developed by independent programmers working on their own time — then it's time to think again.

The Linux kernel is the lowest level of software running on a Linux system, charged with managing the hardware, running user programs, and maintaining security and integrity of the whole set up. What many people don’t realize is that development is now mainly carried out by a small group of paid developers.

A large proportion of these developers are working for "the man” -- large establishment companies in the software and hardware industries, for names like IBM, Intel, Texas Instruments and Cisco. That's according to a Linux Foundation report on Linux kernel development published in February. I
Nobody codes for free

In fact, it turns out that more than 80 percent of all Linux kernel development is "demonstrably done by developers who are being paid for their work," by these big (and sometimes smaller) companies, according to the report.

One organization that isn’t featured in the report's list of companies paying its staff to develop the Linux kernel is Microsoft, a company whose proprietary software model once made it enemy No. 1 for many in the open source movement, but which now claims to embrace free code.
INSIDER: SUSE Linux 12 challenges Red Hat

But one that is featured in the report is Huawei, the Chinese technology company founded by a former Chinese People's Liberation Army officer. That’s a possible cause for concern: The company denies having links to the Chinese government, but some governments, including those in the U.S., U.K. and Australia, have banned the purchasing of certain Huawei hardware products amid worries that they may contain software back doors that could be used for spying.

About 1 percent of all the changes to the Linux kernel are currently written by developers paid by Huawei, according to the report.
Keeping open source open

Amanda McPherson, vice president of developer forums at the Linux Foundation, points out that the whole point of open source software is to remain open to review and close scrutiny, in contrast to proprietary software that runs in many hardware products sold by Huawei and other companies.

“No one can submit a patch on their own," she says. "Security is always a concern, but every patch goes through maintainers, and there is lots of code review. That is a much more secure mechanism than a closed system with no source code availability."

That may be true, but the severe Heartbleed and Shellshock vulnerabilities recently discovered in the open source Bash and OpenSSL software demonstrate that insecure code can be introduced into open source products—unintentionally or perhaps deliberately —and remain undetected for years.

The fact that the vast majority of Linux kernel developers are paid to do so by their employers is a big change from the Linux that Linus Torvalds, then a student at the University of Helsinki, first announced on comp.os.minix in August 1991. At the time he said, "I'm doing a (free) operating system (just a hobby, won’t be big and professional like gnu) for 386(486) AT clones."

In fact, the volume of contributions from students and other volunteers to the Linux kernel has been in steady decline for some time, according to the report: from 14.6 percent of contributions in 2012 to just 11.8 percent now.

"I think that when we started collecting these figures, it was a surprise that so many contributors are paid, and in fact it still is a surprise to the general public. But Linux is a highly commercial enterprise," McPherson says. "Many people thought it was volunteers working in their basements. I think it is good that companies are contributing, even though they are contributing for selfish reasons. They are supporting Linux, but they can't own it or dictate how it is developed."

She points out that if Linux were an application, then paid-for developers would be adding features that met the needs of the corporations that paid them. But the kernel is much more low-level code, and the sorts of contributions that paid developers make often involve enabling hardware connections by providing kernel drivers.
Losing its amateur status

An interesting question, then, is why Linux kernel development has changed so much from the "just a hobby" approach originally envisioned by Torvalds back in 1991, to professional developers working on company time.

One obvious possible answer is that large enterprises, especially hardware manufacturers like Intel or Texas Instruments, have an interest in ensuring that there are Linux drivers for their hardware, and that the kernel can otherwise support their products. Over time, as Linux has become increasingly popular, this type of support has become increasingly important.

But McPherson believes a simpler reason is more plausible. "Kernel developers are in short supply, so anybody who demonstrates an ability to get code into the mainline tends not to have trouble finding job offers. Indeed, the bigger problem can be fending those offers off," the report says.

On a more positive note, the report does highlight some of the achievements of what McPherson describes as "the most collaborative software project in history."

Thanks to contributions from 11,695 developers working for over 1,200 companies, the kernel has been updated with major releases every 8 to 12 weeks. Each release includes more than 10,000 changes, which means that changes are accepted into the kernel at the staggering rate of more than seven every hour.


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Thursday, April 16, 2015

The day the first iPad arrived

Five years ago Friday, April 3, 2010, the first Apple iPads were delivered to the public.

April 3, 2010
Tablets had always flopped so there was no shortage of naysayers pooh-poohing Apple’s new iPad when the first model was delivered to homes and made available in stores on April 3, 2010. While sales growth has slowed recently, the naysayers could not possibly have been more wrong. Here are some images from the iPad’s debut day.

Sign of things to come
A fan outside the Apple Store in New York City.

Lining up
In what has now become a ritualistic sight for Apple product launches, customers line up for the first iPad outside of a store in San Francisco.

Lining up the goods
A store employee prepares the product for sale in San Francisco.

Initial reaction
Andreas Schobel reacts after being among the first to purchase an iPad at the San Francisco store.

A Halloween costume to come
Lyle Haney walks along the waiting line wearing what would become a common Halloween costume.

300,000 sold that day
A worker rings up a sale in the New York store. Apple reported that it sold 300,000 iPads on that first day.

Mr. iFixIt among buyers
Luke Soules, co-founder of iFixit, was among the first to walk out of the Richmond, Va., store with a pre-ordered iPad. Here is the tear-down iFixit did on the machine.

Employees cheer
Store workers cheer as hundreds of shoppers enter the Chicago outlet.

'Hey Steve, here’s your iPad, buddy’
Steve would appear to be Steve Mays. The UPS guy who brought him his iPad is not identified, but you can hear him announce the delivery here.

You could Google it
And this is what the Google search results page looked like on Day One of the iPad.

It was front-page news
Including in the Honolulu Advertiser, for example, which warned readers to “expect a crowd.”

At the bar
By evening, many an iPad owner was enjoying a new way to end the day with a newspaper and a nig



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Wednesday, April 1, 2015

CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

Answer: D

Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to
effectively capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise's internal and external environments are
constantly changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can
capture the changes in threat and vulnerability.

Answer: B is incorrect. While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect
to their sensitivity, the most important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs
continue to effectively capture the changes in threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most
important reason is that because of change of threat and vulnerability overtime.

Answer: C is incorrect. Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for
KRI maintenance.

Answer: A is incorrect. Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based
on KRI reporting, but is not the reason for maintenance of KRIs.


QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation
process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few
administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have
wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks
without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk
responses that you have identified during the project's monitoring and controlling process?

A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization's lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project's risk register already.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the organization's lessons
learned database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if relevant.

Answer: D is incorrect. If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project's
risk register then it may not be shared with project managers working on some other project.

Answer: A is incorrect. The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk
response plan during the project and they'll be entered into the organization's lessons learned
database.

Answer: B is incorrect. The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after
completing the project, they should be entered into the organization's lessons learned database.


QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that
could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST
describes this risk event?

A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the
project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the
appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the
strategies to negate risks or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks
with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized.
Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more
talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit
response.

Answer: B is incorrect. To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk;
loss is accepted if it occurs. But as this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and
not accepted.

Answer: A and C are incorrect. Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative
risk events, and not in positive risk events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could
save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.


QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months
and will cost $750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and
stakeholders to identify risks within the project before the project work begins. Management wants
to know why you have scheduled so many risk identification meetings throughout the project
rather than just initially during the project planning. What is the best reason for the duplicate risk
identification sessions?

A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes
throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed
the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to
identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during
project execution.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or become known as the
project progresses through its life cycle.

Answer: D is incorrect. The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new risk
events.

Answer: B is incorrect. Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events
which did not happen.

Answer: A is incorrect. Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification
process, but this is not the best choice for the


QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a
rating for occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority
Number (RPN) you would give to it?

A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30

Answer: A

Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to score these
assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120

Answer: C, D, and B are incorrect. These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence,
and detection.



Tuesday, March 24, 2015

642-736 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS)


QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?

A. Identifying new attack tools
B. Auditing employee's bandwidth usage
C. Identifying attacks using signature matching
D. Improving performance by load balancing

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
As of controller release v5.2, which two statements about wired guest access support are true?
(Choose two.)

A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
C. Layer 3 web authentication and passthrough are not supported.
D. Wired guest access cannot be configured in a dual-controller configuration that uses an anchor
controller and a foreign controller.
E. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.

Answer: A,E


QUESTION 3
The wireless client can roam faster on the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure when
which condition is met?

A. EAP-FAST is used for client authentication on the wireless network.
B. Cisco Centralized Key Management is used for Fast Secure Roaming.
C. QoS is being used on the WLAN to control which client packets get through the network faster.
D. RRM protocol is used between multiple APs that the client associates to while roaming.

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which option best describes an evil twin attack?

A. A rouge access point broadcasting a trusted SSID
B. A rogue access point broadcasting any SSID
C. A rouge ad-hoc with the SSID "Free WiFi"
D. A rouge access point spreading malware upon client connection

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two configuration parameters does NAC OOB require on a SSID/WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. WMM enabled on the WLAN
B. Open authentication on the WLAN
C. AAA override configuration on the WLAN
D. 802.1x configuration on the WLAN

Answer: B,D



Thursday, March 19, 2015

3V00290A APDS Avaya Scopia Online Test


QUESTION 1
You are proposing videoconferencing for a customer with 15 large meeting rooms, 25 small
meeting rooms, and 4000 employees dispersed over three continents: North America, Asia, and
Europe. Thirty percent of the workforce will be video-enabled, and you are proposing XT5000s for
the large meeting rooms and XT4200 for the small meeting rooms. Using the normal 1:10 ratio for
simultaneous rooms and users, how many ports (including cascading) and Elite 5000 MCUs
should be included in the design?

A. 440 352p ports or 4 Elite 5230 MCUs
B. 280 352p ports or 2 Elite 5230 MCUs
C. 152 352p ports or 3 Elite 5115 MCUs
D. 140 352p ports or 4 Elite 5110 MCUs
E. 136 352p ports or 3 Elite 5110 MCUs

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Your customer, Jay, is reviewing your proposal for Scopia® video conferencing. He notices that
within Scopia Management, there is a SIP Back-to-Back User Agent and an internal gatekeeper
that could be external. When would you tell him he would use an external gatekeeper instead of
an internal gatekeeper?

A. In order to work with an external Microsoft SQL database
B. When running Scopia Management (iView) on a Linux server
C. To support configurations with multiple cascaded Elite MCUs
D. To support Scopia Management (iView) redundancy

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Your customer is concerned about the ease of use for the infrequent video collaboration user. You
explain that your solution includes Scopia' Control. What is Scopia Control?

A. An iPad app for conference control.
B. An Android mobile device app for conference control.
C. An Android mobile device app for configuring the user's virtual room.
D. An iPad app for configuring the user's virtual room.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Scopia Control is an Apple iPad application for control of Avaya video conferencing systems. The
highly intuitive user interface virtually eliminates the learning curve for a video conferencing
system. The integrated conference room calendar and enterprise directory makes it easy to join
meetings and invite others. Room system control and meeting moderation are simple through the
iPad Multi-Touch user interface.
Reference: http://www.avaya.com/usa/product/avaya-scopia-xt-video-conferencing/


QUESTION 4
You are meeting with your Account Team and discussing a small SMB customer. You're hesitant
to select the Scopia® SMB solution with the MCU embedded in the XT1200, because it has some
differences from a configuration with an Elite MCU and Scopia Management (iView). Select three
capabilities the SMB solution does not support that you would discuss with the Account Team.
(Choose 3)

A. Support for Scopia Mobile users
B. Support for internal Scopia Desktop Client users
C. Support recording and streaming of conferences
D. Support for encryption of conferences over 4
E. Support for external Scopia Desktop Client users
F. Support multiple concurrent conferences

Answer: D,E,F
Reference: http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/rv_solution_guide_8/soln_sg_deployment_smb_limits


QUESTION 5
For users who operate out of the office, Scopia® offers desktop client and mobile applications.
Your friend Oliver, another SE, calls to ask you about a statement in the Scopia marketing
materials that says that Scopia is the best meet-me client because it is more than an endpoint.
Although there are many reasons, what two would you want to tell Oliver about? (Choose 2)

A. Error resiliency for both the desktop and mobile clients uses SVC (scalable video coding) and
Netsense
B. Users can download the presentation using the slider feature
C. User features such as chat, FECC (far end camera control), and raise hand
D. Best user experience with calendar integration and one tap to join
E. Simple and secure firewall traversal using HTTPS (hypertext transfer protocol secure)

Answer: D,E

Explanation:


Monday, March 2, 2015

Sensor tech makes predicting the future easier to do

Internet of Things industrial applications designed to forecast failure gain adoption

LAS VEGAS - We no longer need seers, oracles and psychics to tell us about the future. The declining cost of sensor technology and the availability of cloud-based analytical platforms is making predictive analytics accessible to every industry and most products.

These technologies give insights into how products are performing. Sensors record vibration, temperature, pressure and voltage, among other conditions, and provide data for real-time analysis. Sensors can help lead to discovery of faulty parts in products weeks before they actually fail.

Initial deployments of sensors have been in large and expensive industrial platforms, such as electrical generation systems and jet engines. In time, sensors connected to analytical platforms will be found in nearly every product.

The belief is that this technology will make machinery and systems more reliable. Sensors and analytics will alert users and vendors to problems days, weeks and months before a problem becomes visible. This insight into performance will also significantly reduce unplanned failures.

"We will know more about when they are going to fail, and how they fail," said Richard Soley, CEO of the Object Management Group, a nonprofit technology standards consortium.

Businesses will also benefit from learning how customers are using their products, which will shape how products are made, Soley said.

Predictive analytics capability in industrial applications is not a new concept. Big machinery has long used sensors. What is new is the convergence of three major trends that will make deployment ubiquitous, say people working in this area.

First, sensor technology is declining in price as it gets smaller and more efficient; second, wireless communication systems have become reliable and global; third, is that cloud-based platforms that can be used for analytics and development are emerging rapidly. Collectively, these trends underpin the Internet of Things.

At IBM's big conference, InterConnect, this week, the University of South Carolina was showing off a sensor-equipped gear box on an Apache helicopter that is part of study for the U.S. Army. There were four sensors on the gear box collecting temperature and vibration data.

One of the big savings in the use of this technology, aside from predicting failure, is correctly planning maintenance. Many maintenance activities may be unnecessary, wasteful and can introduce new problems.

"If you can reduce improper maintenance processes and improve the identification of faulty maintenance, you can directly impact safety," said Retired Maj. Gen. Lester Eisner, with South Carolina's National Guard, who is deputy director of the university's Office of Economic Engagement.

In another area, National Instruments has been working with utilities to deploy its sensor technology. Today, many utilities have employees who collect data directly off machines, which is something of a shotgun approach, said Stuart Gillen, principal marketing manager at the company and a speaker at the IBM conference.

All it takes is one or two "catches" – preventing a failure in a large system – to justify the cost of deploying technology that can take in all the data from these systems and provide a more targeted approach to maintaining them, Gillen said.

National Instruments is working with IBM and its recently launched Internet of Things capability, which is part of IBM's Bluemix cloud platform. This platform gives developers the ability to create new ways of working with the machine data.

There is much optimism that this technology will reduce equipment failures. Having the ability to see a little further into the future and reducing the need to rely on the benefit of hard-learned hindsight is the goal. But no one is predicting that this technology will eliminate failure all together.

"There are a lot of variables" that can contribute to equipment failure, said Sky Matthews, the CTO of IBM's Internet of Things effort, but this technology "can certainly dramatically reduce them."