Friday, October 28, 2016

820-427 BTBBSS Building Business Specialist Skills (BTBBSS)

Exam Number 820-427 BTBBSS
Associated Certifications Cisco Enterprise IT Business Specialist
Duration 90 Minutes (60 - 70 questions)
Available Languages English
The 820-427 Building Business Specialist Skills exam tests a candidate's knowledge of skills to effectively discover opportunities for IT value, design, and ability to oversee development of business-focused solutions plus translate among business and IT language. These abilities are highly valued by IT and Line of Business leaders, as indicators than an IT professional has the expertise and influence to deliver superior business impacts.

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of skills to effectively discover opportunities for IT value, design, and oversee development of business-focused solutions plus translate among business and IT language. These abilities are highly valued by IT and Line of Business leaders, as indicators that an IT professional has the expertise and influence to deliver superior business impacts. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Building Business Specialist Skills course (BTBBSS).

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.0 Business Context 9%

1.1 Describe the purpose of an organization's vision, mission, strategy, objectives, and initiatives

1.2 Compare and contrast Critical Success Factors (CSFs) and Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

1.3 Contrast strategy, management, and operations

1.4 Compare frameworks used across business and IT efforts

1.4.a Enterprise architecture (i.e., TOGAF, COBIT)
1.4.b Quality (i.e., Six Sigma)
1.4.c Service management (i.e., ITIL)
1.4.d Program management (i.e., MSP, MOP)
1.4.e Project management (i.e., PMBOK, Prince II, APMP)

2.0 Research Techniques and Tools 10%

2.1 Compare and contrast business-focused investigative techniques and tools (i.e., workshops, observation, primary research, questionnaires, interviews, focus groups)

2.2 Use and apply business-focused investigative techniques and tools

2.3 Apply technology discovery methods to gather information (i.e., usage patterns, external industry research papers, conferences, monitoring tools)

3.0 Business Analysis and Business Case 17%

3.1 Create a stakeholder map and conduct stakeholder analysis

3.2 Identify relevant business scenarios

3.3 Create an analysis of business capabilities

3.4 Construct gap analysis and document pain points/opportunities.

3.5 Identify elements of a cross-functional business diagram.

3.6 Describe the structure of a business case.

3.7 Create and verify the value proposition as the foundation of the business case.

3.8 Describe how to use a business case through the life cycle, to approval for investments

4.0 Technology and Trends 13%

4.1 Describe the as-is state: current services and how to optimize them for maximum value

4.2 Describe how technology impacts an organization's business capabilities

4.2.a Describe consequences of not changing outdated technologies
4.2.b Describe consequences of adopting emerging or new technologies

4.3 Identify the enterprise architecture taxonomy and how its components interrelate

4.4 Demonstrate ability to work with business and technology subject matter experts to research and assess options for technology improvement

4.5 Discover technology advances and explain how they impact business value

5.0 Technology Analysis 16%

5.1 Analyze business requirements to determine technology requirements

5.2 Identify existing technology capabilities

5.3 Formulate needed technology capabilities

5.4 Evaluate technology gaps

5.5 Compare possible technology solutions and map them to existing technology capabilities and stakeholder viewpoints

5.6 Formulate one or more recommendations based on possible technology solutions

5.7 Design a Proof of Concept and analyze the results

5.8 Employ techniques to align technology requirements with business capabilities

5.9 Evaluate potential internal and external technology solutions

5.9.a Analyze whether existing technology can be leveraged to solve business problems
5.9.b Provide technology requirements (domain knowledge) to include within RFIs/RFPs/RFQs
5.9.c Grade the responses to RFIs/RFPs/RFQs
5.9.d Assess considerations of different IT solution deployment strategies

5.10 Evaluate the non-financial impact of technologies, trends, and consumption models as they apply to business solutions

6.0 Finance Basics and Project Management 13%

6.1 Apply financial terms in the context of evaluating a simple business case

6.2 Describe and apply technology consumption and pricing models in a business context

6.2a Hardware
6.2b Software Licensing
6.2c Internal and external support and professional services
6.2d Cost of operations
6.2e Lifecycle management
6.2f Pay as you use models
6.2g CAPEX to OPEX

6.3 Describe implications of budgeting practices

6.3.a How budgets affect decisions within an organization
6.3.b Charge back, show back
6.3.c Project bundling

6.4 Describe how value is created and managed within an enterprise

6.4.a Defining Value
6.4.b Balancing risk versus rewards
6.4.c Approaches and influences on financial investment decisions

6.5 Develop portions of a financially justified business case, to answer key questions and support achievement of results

6.5.a Calculate return on the investment
6.5.b Compare against cost of capital
6.5.c Identify level of risk
6.5.d Define how the business cases helps in translating benefits into financial value
6.5.e Calculate ROI, Total cost of ownership, time to value, break-even point

6.6 Explain how project management helps to promote successful outcomes

6.7 Explain core principles, methods, and techniques for effectively managing projects

6.8 Describe how to influence a project implementation to ensure success

6.9 Demonstrate ability to perform risk analysis (financial, operational, and strategic)

6.10 Create a risk mitigation plan

7.0 Implementation and Adoption 10%

7.1 Demonstrate ability to work with delivery teams to ensure implementations meet requirements

7.2 Demonstrate ability to work with management team to plan for and ensure successful adoption of technology solutions

7.3 Collect metrics, analyze against KPIs and CSFs, and report back to senior management

7.4 Create the phased roadmap for implementation and adoption

7.5 Calculate the impact of technological change on people and processes

7.6 Demonstrate ability to incorporate IT change management best practice principles within a solution proposal

7.7 Construct requirements for adoption of IT solutions into the business

8.0 Communications and Influence 12%

8.1 Articulate technical information in a clear and concise manner

8.2 Apply core communication skills effectively

8.3 Demonstrate ability to deliver information effectively

8.3.a Vary communications level of detail, style, scope, by audience (i.e.one on one, group, executive)
8.3.b Align messages to the audience
QUESTION 1
What two statements correctly describe vision or mission? (Choose two.)

A. A mission is a statement of the purpose of a company.
B. A vision is what a company wants to become in the mid-term or long-term future.
C. A vision describes actions the organization will take to achieve specific goals.
D. A mission identifies the company's planned investments to increase revenue.
E. A vision is only used by for-profit companies.
F. A mission is only used by public sector organizations.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What two statements are true about Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)? (Choose two.)

A. A KPI is a quantifiable metric of the performance of essential operations and/or processes in an organization.
B. A KPI provides the focal point for identifying how much risk a company can take in trying to avoid government fines.
C. A KPI could reflect the performance of Service Providers in achieving their goals and objectives.
D. KPIs are based on judgment, and therefore should be used carefully when defining the value of a technology solution.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which is a critical first step when thinking about how to communicate technical content to a senior business manager?

A. Identify a person on her staff who can explain details.
B. Listen to the customer to understand her KPIs.
C. Plan out your message to explain potential options.
D. Draft a high level message using language pulled from the top IT vendors.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Your company wants to increase sales by selling in new countries and by getting more repeat
orders and revenue from current customers. What is one technique that can help to communicate
how technology solutions can improve business outcomes?

A. Prepare a detailed cause and effect model.
B. Benchmark different technology solutions to identify the best mix of hardware and software.
C. Prepare a visual diagram showing the current business operation and possible future scenarios
with different technology solutions in place.
D. Create a document that has a summary of current problems followed by detailed descriptions of
technology features that reduce operating costs.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
When asked about IT skills gaps, where does "Speak business language" fall in a list of concerns?

A. "Speak business language" would be helpful to improve, but not among the most critcal gaps.
B. The ranking varies depending on the industry and whether the business person is new in their job.
C. "Speak business language" is consistently mentioned as a top concern for IT professionals.
D. "Speak business language" is a very low priority but moving higher because business people
need to learn the terms for technologies like cloud.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Wednesday, October 26, 2016

200-105 ICND2 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

Exam Number 200-105 ICND2
Associated Certifications CCNA Routing & Switching
Duration 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese

This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

The Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (200-105 ICND2) exam is a 90-minute, 45–55 question assessment that is associated with the associated with the CCNA Routing and Switching certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technologies, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services, and infrastructure maintenance.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.


Subscribe to Cisco Learning Network Premium and access the most comprehensive e-learning training, resources and tools you’ll need to prepare for your CCENT, CCNA and CCNP Routing and Switching certifications.

1.0 LAN Switching Technologies 26%

1.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs (normal/extended range) spanning multiple switches

1.1.a Access ports (data and voice)
1.1.b Default VLAN

1.2 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interswitch connectivity

1.2.a Add and remove VLANs on a trunk
1.2.b DTP and VTP (v1&v2)

1.3 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot STP protocols

1.3.a STP mode (PVST+ and RPVST+)
1.3.b STP root bridge selection

1.4 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot STP-related optional features

1.4.a PortFast
1.4.b BPDU guard

1.5 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot (Layer 2/Layer 3) EtherChannel

1.5.a Static
1.5.b PAGP
1.5.c LACP

1.6 Describe the benefits of switch stacking and chassis aggregation

1.7 Describe common access layer threat mitigation techniques

1.7.a 802.1x
1.7.b DHCP snooping
1.7.c Nondefault native VLAN

2.0 Routing Technologies 29%

2.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot Inter-VLAN routing

2.1.a Router on a stick
2.1.b SVI

2.2 Compare and contrast distance vector and link-state routing protocols

2.3 Compare and contrast interior and exterior routing protocols

2.4 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot single area and multiarea OSPFv2 for IPv4 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub, virtual-link, and LSAs)

2.5 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot single area and multiarea OSPFv3 for IPv6 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub, virtual-link, and LSAs)

2.6 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot EIGRP for IPv4 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub)

2.7 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot EIGRP for IPv6 (excluding authentication, filtering, manual summarization, redistribution, stub)

3.0 WAN Technologies 16%

3.1 Configure and verify PPP and MLPPP on WAN interfaces using local authentication

3.2 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot PPPoE client-side interfaces using local authentication

3.3 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot GRE tunnel connectivity

3.4 Describe WAN topology options

3.4.a Point-to-point
3.4.b Hub and spoke
3.4.c Full mesh
3.4.d Single vs dual-homed

3.5 Describe WAN access connectivity options

3.5.a MPLS
3.5.b MetroEthernet
3.5.c Broadband PPPoE
3.5.d Internet VPN (DMVPN, site-to-site VPN, client VPN)

3.6 Configure and verify single-homed branch connectivity using eBGP IPv4 (limited to peering and route advertisement using Network command only)

4.0 Infrastructure Services 14%

4.1 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot basic HSRP

4.1.a Priority
4.1.b Preemption
4.1.c Version

4.2 Describe the effects of cloud resources on enterprise network architecture

4.2.a Traffic path to internal and external cloud services
4.2.b Virtual services
4.2.c Basic virtual network infrastructure

4.3 Describe basic QoS concepts

4.3.a Marking
4.3.b Device trust
4.3.c Prioritization
4.3.c. [i] Voice
4.3.c. [ii] Video
4.3.c. [iii] Data
4.3.d Shaping
4.3.e Policing
4.3.f Congestion management

4.4 Configure, verify, and troubleshoot IPv4 and IPv6 access list for traffic filtering

4.4.a Standard
4.4.b Extended
4.4.c Named

4.5 Verify ACLs using the APIC-EM Path Trace ACL analysis tool

5.0 Infrastructure Maintenance 15%

5.1 Configure and verify device-monitoring protocols

5.1.a SNMPv2
5.1.b SNMPv3

5.2 Troubleshoot network connectivity issues using ICMP echo-based IP SLA

5.3 Use local SPAN to troubleshoot and resolve problems

5.4 Describe device management using AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS

5.5 Describe network programmability in enterprise network architecture

5.5.a Function of a controller
5.5.b Separation of control plane and data plane
5.5.c Northbound and southbound APIs

5.6 Troubleshoot basic Layer 3 end-to-end connectivity issues

QUESTION 1
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist
for that communication?

A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application

Answer: E

Explanation:
This question is to examine the OSI reference model.
The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.

QUESTION 2
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link

Answer: A
Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.
The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment before sending the next part.
The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination network, and routes the data appropriately.

QUESTION 4
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).


QUESTION 6
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.


Monday, October 17, 2016

300-360 WIDESIGN Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks

Exam Number 300-360
Associated Certifications CCNP Wireless
Duration 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions)
Available Languages English
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks
The Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) exam (300-360) is a 90-minute, 60-70 question assessment that is associated with the CCNP Wireless certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific instance of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, these guidelines may change at any time without notice. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Designing Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDESIGN) course.
1.0 Obtaining Customer Requirements as Related to the WLAN Installation 12%

1.1 Identify business and RF application needs
1.2 Identify client density, capabilities and their impact on the wireless network
1.2.a Client quantity, radio type, spatial streams
1.3 Identify the challenges of setting up a wireless network by various vertical markets
1.4 Describe required site survey documentation
1.4.a Customer questionnaire
1.4.b Floor plans & their quality
1.4.c Describe the deliverables of the site survey
1.5 Identify coverage area requirements
1.5.a Mesh
1.5.b High density
1.5.c Security sensitive
1.5.d Real time applications
2.0 Determine Facility Type and Constraints Related to WLAN Deployments 12%

2.1 Describe impact of regulatory domains
2.1.a Mesh
2.1.b Channel and power
2.1.c Multi-national deployments
2.2 Identify deployment location safety considerations
2.3 Identify the impact of customer aesthetic limitations on the installation
2.4 Assess the existing wired and wireless infrastructure
2.4.a Determine high-throughput and very high throughput (VHT) protocol (n/ac) impact
2.4.b Determine existing wireless infrastructure if required
2.5 Identify impact of material attenuation
2.5.a Walls, cubicles, and the likes
2.5.b Single/multi-floor
2.5.c Campus
2.5.d Warehouse/retail
2.5.e Subtitle number 2.2
3.0 WLAN Predictive Design 14%

3.1 Select the criteria used for coverage design
3.1.a Data vs voice vs video vs location
3.2 Demonstrate the impact of frequency planning in a high density environment
3.2.a Band select for high density
3.2.b Optimize 2.4 GHz radio utilization
3.2.c Legacy devices
3.2.d Channel width
3.3 Use PI and Ekahau planning tools to make network plan
3.3.a Enter network requirements in the tool
3.3.a.[i] Capacity requirements
3.3.a.[ii] Coverage requirements
3.3.b Define the environment
3.3.b.[i] Maps and scale
3.3.b.[ii] Types of RF obstacles
3.3.c Place and configure simulated APs and antennas
3.3.c.[i] Place simulated APs (manual, automatics)
3.3.c.[ii] Adjust APs and Antennas / AP TX power height and down tilt
3.3.d Analyze key network metrics using heat maps for 2.4 and 5GHz
3.3.d.[i] Analyze coverage, SNR, and channel overlap
3.3.d.[ii] Analyze AP placements in regards to real time handoffs around corner
4.0 Pre-Deployment Site Survey 14%

4.1 Identify the appropriate site survey equipment and access requirements based on environmental needs
4.2 Complete the Layer 2 site survey for indoor, and outdoor MESH environments
4.2.a Select proper AP and antenna for conducting site survey
4.2.b Configure AP
4.2.c Survey for worst case client
4.3 Complete Layer 1 survey (Cisco CleanAir, Metageek Chanalyzer)
5.0 Post-Deployment Site Survey 15%

5.1 Verify RF coverage
5.1.a Utilize tools (Ekahau) for audit
5.1.b RRM, controller
5.1.c Analyze SNR, channel overlap, and packet loss
5.2 Verify network applications and performance
5.2.a Apply PI tools (voice readiness, location readiness, site calibration)
5.3 Reconcile any deployment issues
5.4 Assemble and deliver installation report to customer
5.4.a Indoor
5.4.b Outdoor MESH
6.0 Design the Infrastructure of the Wireless Network 15%

6.1 Determine physical infrastructure requirements
6.1.a AC Power and POE
6.1.b Understand cable plant considerations
6.1.c Mounting considerations: NEMA
6.1.d Outdoor grounding and lighting protection
6.1.e Rack capacity
6.1.f Switch port capacity
6.2 Determine logical infrastructure requirements
6.2.a Determine AP count, controller count, and license requirements
6.2.b Decide the type of architecture for the deployment
6.3 Describe IPv6 optimization on the WLC
6.3.a RA filter
6.3.b DHCP Server guard
6.3.c DHCPv6 Source guard
7.0 Describe and Design Wireless Architecture for Real time Applications 18%

7.1 Describe the relationship between real time applications & the wireless networks
7.1.a Packet Error Rate (PER)
7.1.b RF Coverage
7.1.c Bit Error Rate (BER)
7.1.d QoS
7.1.e Call Admission Control (CAC)
7.1.f Client roaming decision algorithm
7.2 Describe voice and video as they apply to the wireless network
7.2.a Device capabilities (hardware and software)
7.2.b Call setup/data flow overview
7.2.c Other wireless voice and video services (i.e. Jabber, Lync, Skype, Viber, Facetime)
7.2.d Standards and WIFI Alliance (WFA) certifications (.11r, .11e, .11n/ac, .11k, CCKM, voice enterprise, voice personal, WMM, UAPSD)
7.2.e Cisco Compatible Extensions (voice features)
7.2.f Voice and video codecs
7.2.g Skinny Client Control Protocol (SCCP)
7.2.h Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)
7.3 Describe real time applications (other than voice and video) as they apply to the wireless network
7.3.a Session based and non-session based
7.3.b Roaming sensitivity
7.3.c Disconnection issue
7.4 Design wireless roaming parameters for supporting real time applications
7.4.a 802.11 r/k, CCKM, OKC, mobility groups, interface groups,
7.4.b Tuning RF parameters
7.4.c AP placement considerations
7.5 Design wireless parameters for supporting real time applications
7.5.a Minimum speed requirements-RSSI and SNR
7.5.b Client transmit and receive sensitivity / mismatch with AP
7.5.c Cell overlap requirements
7.5.d Cell separations
7.5.e Traffic control and management, QoS, VLAN, WMM, AVC
7.5.f Delay and jitter requirements
7.5.g CAC and TSPEC
7.5.h Spectrum
7.5.i 802.11n/ac enhancements
7.5.j Concurrent client connections
7.5.k Band select
QUESTION 1
An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)
A. One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
B. One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
C. Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
D. Four APs are deployed on the floor.
E. Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
F. Three APs are deployed on the floor.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
A point in a WLAN deployment is location ready if the following are all determined to be true:
At least four access points are deployed on the floor.
At least one access point is found to be resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-QUESTION NO:. At least one access point residing in each of at least three of the surrounding quadrants is located within 70 feet of the point-in-QUESTION NO:. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Ac cess/ CMX/CMX_LocFund.pdf

QUESTION 2
A customer has a business-critical voice network and wants to be alerted whenever voice clients move out of a coverage area and experience RSSI below -67 dBm on the 5 GHz band. Which option can be configured on the wireless controller to alert network administrators when this limit is surpassed?
A. EDCA; voice optimized
B. SIP voice sample interval
C. 802.11a voice RSSI coverage threshold
D. traffic stream metrics
Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two factors influence the density of APs in a data-only WLAN environment? (Choose two.)
A. the number of clients that will roam through the facility
B. the type of controller chosen
C. the defined coverage area and customer needs
D. the number of APs dedicated to voice services
E. channel reuse and WLAN bandwidth
Answer: C,E

Thursday, September 29, 2016

650-127 CGE Authorized Connected Grid Engineer Knowledge Verification

Exam Number 650-127
Duration 60 minutes (55-60 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam will test the knowledge of system engineers and field engineers regarding the features, functions, design, and planning for deployment of the Cisco Connected Grid technology solution. There will be a focus on the features and benefits of the Cisco 2010 Connected Grid Router (CGR 2010) and the Cisco 2500 Series Connected Grid Switch (CGS 2500). The solution deployment planning will include design, configuration, implementation, and integration.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Introduction to Cisco Connected Grid Go-to-Market and Product Positioning
How to Sell
Cisco Connected Grid Ordering and Support
Cisco 2010 Connected Grid Router (CGR) Product Overview
Cisco 2500 Connected Grid Switch (CGS) Product Overview
Cisco Connected Grid Solutions


QUESTION 1
Which of the following models supports Power over Ethernet?

A. CGS-2520-24TC
B. CGS-2520-16S-8PC
C. All CGS models
D. None of the modelsupportsPOE

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is not a supported PDI Help Desk function?

A. design and configuration support
B. technical product question
C. implementation questions and support
D. On site support
E. RFP review

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which function is available on the Cisco Series 2500 Connected Grid Switch?

A. EnergyWise
B. inputs and outputs for alarms
C. GRWIC modules
D. StackWise

Answer: C

Explanation:

Wednesday, September 28, 2016

650-082 MITSE Mobile Internet Technology for System Engineers

Exam Number 650-082
Duration 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages English

This exam will test System Engineer's knowledge of features, functions and design of the Cisco ASR 5000 mobile internet solution. There will be a focus on design and planning for deployment. Candidates should prepare for this exam by taking the Mobile Internet Technology for Account Managers course as the MIT SE exam covers content from both the AM and SE training courses.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Describe ASR 5000 Hardware and Software
Describe Understanding the StarOS Command Line Interface (CLI)
Describe Software Licensing and Upgrade
Describe ASR 5000 Core services for GPRS/UMTS - SGSN and GGSN Functionalities
Describe the Design and Implementation of xGSN
Describe Billing & Policy
Describe Statistics and Alarms
Describe Services Overview
Describe the Design and Implementation of LTE


QUESTION 1
What Cisco ASR 5000 services are needed for communication between a Serving Gateway and
Packet Data Network Gateway?

A. EGTP and GTPU
B. GTPU and PGW
C. SGW and GTPU
D. EGTP and SGW

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which option helps to define activities that are needed to successfully deploy and operate Cisco
technologies?

A. Smart Services
B. Cisco lifecycle Services
C. TAC
D. Cisco Technical Services

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which card has the resources to run multiple services?

A. system management card
B. switch processor I/O card
C. packet service card
D. redundant crossbar card

Answer: C

Sunday, September 25, 2016

650-059 LCSARS Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching

Exam Number 650-059
Duration 60 minutes (45-55 Questions)
Available Languages English and Japanese
Register Pearson VUE

The 650-059 LCSARS Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills for the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach to help successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies and optimize their performance. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the LCSARS Lifecycle Services Advanced Routing and Switching course.

Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Describe the value of Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Routing & Switching
Identify the phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Routing & Switching
Identify the value of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Routing & Switching
Describe the value of the service components included in the Prepare phase
Describe the value of the service components included in the Plan phase
Describe the value of the service components included in the Design phase
Describe the value of the service components included in the Implement phase
Describe the value of the service components in the Operate phase
Describe the value of the Service Component in the Optimize phase

Describe the value of the activities in each phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
Describe the value of the activities included in the Prepare phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Plan phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Design phase
Describe the value of the activities in the Implement phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Operate phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the Optimize phase


QUESTION 1
Which two of these activities comprise the problem management service component in the operat
phase? (choose two.)

A. send a replacement module
B. schedule a maintenance window
C. manage the problem
D. identify the problem
E. confirm roles and responsibilities

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 2
Identify a customer support model for the solution is an activity thet is part of which service
component in the plan phase?

A. operations readiness assessment
B. planning project kickoff (deployment project management)
C. operations plan development
D. system requirements validation

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which three of these service components are included in the optimize phase? (choose three.)

A. change management
B. security administration
C. technology assessment
D. operations assessment
E. operations readiness assessment
F. security assessment

Answer: C,D,F

Thursday, September 22, 2016

Exam 70-981 Recertification for MCSE: Private Cloud

Published: August 13, 2014
Languages: English, Japanese
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSE

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

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Configure data center process automation
Implement workflows
Implement SCO Runbook automation; automate remediation of incidents, including resolution of System Center Virtual Machine‒based incidents; design and build end-to-end automation, incorporating System Center 2012 technologies; implement change control and problem resolution workflows
Implement service offerings
Add a new service offering to the service catalog, create a custom workflow using the Service Manager console, reference Orchestrator workflows in Service Manager, implement self-service provisioning of virtual machines

Deploy resource monitoring
Deploy end-to-end monitoring
Deploy agents, discover and deploy network device monitoring, import and configure management packs, deploy and configure monitoring of a heterogeneous virtualization infrastructure
Configure end-to-end monitoring
Configure overrides, create synthetic transactions, configure Outside-In monitoring, configure application performance monitoring (APM), create distributed application models, integrate the monitoring infrastructure with Global Service Monitor (GSM)
Create monitoring reports and dashboards
Implement service-level tracking; implement reports, including chargeback reports and System Center Manager data warehouse reports; implement dashboards

Configure and maintain service management
Implement service level management
Define service level objectives (SLOs) and service level agreements (SLAs); implement SLA management and escalation; maintain SLAs, including planning for future growth; analyze SLAs (reporting)
Manage problems and incidents
Customize problem management, link incidents to problems, and resolve problems; raise, assign, and resolve incidents; perform root cause analysis/diagnosis; integrate problem and incident resolution with change management; create and manage a knowledge base
Manage cloud resources
Deploy new applications to private and public clouds; deploy virtual machine (VM)/service (applications, SQL, roles), deploy multi-tier applications by using service templates, manage applications in private and public clouds, manage VM hardware (CPUs, dynamic memory), manage self service

Configure the fabric
Configure the storage fabric
Classification and pools, providers, arrays, file server cluster, storage pools, file shares
Configure the network fabric
Logical networks; VM networks; IP/MAC resource pools; VIP templates; load balancing; logical switches; network isolation, including network virtualization with Windows Server Gateway; private VLANs and VLANs
Configure and manage the deployment and update servers
Integrate a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server into the Virtual Machine Manager fabric; configure and manage a library server; integrate Windows Deployment Services (WDS)/PXE into the Virtual Machine Manager fabric, including virtualization host deployment using Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
Configure clouds and virtualization hosts
Clouds and host groups, configure and deploy virtualization hosts

Configure System Center integration
Configure private cloud integration
Configure Operations Manager connectors; Orchestrator integration packs; Service Manager connectors; SharePoint integration; configure IP Address Management (IPAM) server integration, configure AppController
Configure integration of private and public clouds
Configure Service Provider Framework (SPF), configure Windows Azure Pack for Windows Server
QUESTION 1
You need to implement a solution to meet the IM requirements for the help desk users.
What should you do?

A. Install Unified Communications Managed API 3.0 Runtime on LON-SM1.
B. Install the Lync 2010 client on LON-SM1.
C. Create a Service Manager workflow.
D. Create an IM channel.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ref: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh495482.aspx

QUESTION 2
You need to implement the alert notifications. The solution must meet the technical requirements. A Lync Server administrator enables an account named ADATUM\IMUser for Unified Communications. What should you do next?

A. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install the Lync Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.
B. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account Install the Exchange Server Management Pack. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
C. Create a mailbox for the ADATUM\IMUser account. Install Microsoft Visual C++ 2008 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an SMTP channel.
D. Configure ADATUM\IMUser as a Run As Account. Install Unified Communications
Managed API 3.0 Runtime. Create a notification subscriber and an IM channel.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution to remediate the Exchange Server 2010 service failures. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Create a service request workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
B. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a dependent activity.
C. Create an incident event workflow that triggers a runbook activity.
D. Create a service request workflow that triggers a runbook activity.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution to meet the monitoring requirements for App2.
What should you include in the recommendation? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)

A. An aggregate rollup monitor
B. A distributed application
C. A dependency rollup monitor
D. Service monitors

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the sales department managers can create instances of App1 in Cloud1.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. A subscription in App Controller and a task in Service Manager
B. A dashboard in Operations Manager and a distributed application
C. A task in Operations Manager and a distributed application
D. A service offering in Service Manager and a runbook in Orchestrator

Answer: D